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Khwairakpam Raju Singh
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Joined: 05 Dec 2007 Posts: 29 Location: Bangalore
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Hello,
Coluld anyone hepl me finding out the exect answer for following question.
Q1. Suppose COBOL program A calls B, B calls C.
As of now all the program A, B,C are pure COBOL program and it can be execute with PGM=A in JCL.
Now, due to some requirement, Program C will be calling program D, which is a COBOL+DB2 program.
i) What are the procedure to be done in terms of compilation(suppose program used Dynamic calls)
ii) How to run the program A. Do we need to convert program A from cobol program to COBOL+DB2 and execute it from JCl with PGM=IKJEFT01
Thanks in advance. |
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expat
Global Moderator
Joined: 14 Mar 2007 Posts: 8797 Location: Welsh Wales
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The concept of the interview questions forum is that you the poster tell us what your answers were, and then the rest of the forum will comment. |
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Khwairakpam Raju Singh
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Joined: 05 Dec 2007 Posts: 29 Location: Bangalore
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Soory for that. Following were my answers:
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i) What are the procedure to be done in terms of compilation(suppose program used Dynamic calls)
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The program A(as it will be converted to COBOL+DB2), C (as changes will be done to call program D) and new program D has to be compiled and bind to make time stamp in sycn.
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How to run the program A. Do we need to convert program A from cobol program to COBOL+DB2 and execute it from JCl with PGM=IKJEFT01 |
Prgram A has to conver to COBOL+DB2 program and plan has to created for program A. (not sure about the answer and even I am not sure that can be done without converting program A to COBOL+DB2 program.) |
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Khwairakpam Raju Singh
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Joined: 05 Dec 2007 Posts: 29 Location: Bangalore
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Still I am not sure about the answer which I have given is correct or not. It will be great if someone explain more in this.
Thanks in advance. |
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ragbose
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Joined: 11 Jan 2010 Posts: 13 Location: chennai/hyderabad
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